The translators of the NRSV found the little word he especially troubling. We can appreciate
the difficulty they encountered in a verse such as John 14:23: "Jesus answered him, 'If a man loves me,
he will keep my word, and my Father will love him, and we will come to him and make our home with him'"
(RSV).
There would be no problem in beginning the sentence, "If anyone loves me..." because the Greek
pronoun tis does not specify a man. But then how can we finish the sentence? One might think of
using "he or she" in some cases, but it would soon become exceptionally awkward. We would end up with
this monstrosity of English style:
If anyone loves me, he or she will keep my word, and my Father will love him
or her, and we will come to him or her and make our home with him or her.
The NRSV translators did not want to do this, so they changed the singulars to plurals instead:
Those who love me will keep my word, and my Father will love them and
we will come to them and make our home with them.
The problem is that Jesus did not speak with plural pronouns here; he used singulars. Jesus wanted to
specify that he and the Father would come and dwell with an individual believer. But the NRSV has
lost that emphasis, because the plurals "those" and "them" indicate a group of people. "We will come to
them and make our home with them indicates coming to a group of people, such as a church.
The words of Jesus have been unnecessarily changed in translation, and the meaning is different. This is
what the NRSV preface says are the "paraphrastic renderings" they had to use in dealing with gender-related
language, and the preface rightly sets these in contrast to the rest of the NRSV, which is called "essentially
a literal translation."
The rejection of generic "he, him, his" obscures the personal application of Scripture in many other
verses, such as "I will come in to him and eat with him, and he with me" (Rev. 3:20,
where three Greek pronouns are masculine singular). The NRSV changes this to, "I will come in to you
and eat with you, and you with me," but "you" in this context would then refer to the whole
church, and individual application of a familiar verse is lost. The NIVI, NCV, CEV and NLT, change "him"
to "them," which also represents Jesus eating with a whole church, not just an individual. This is a serious
loss of the specific individual application that Scripture intended for our benefit.
There is a Messianic prediction in Psalm 34:20: "He keeps all his bones; not one of them is broken"
(RSV). John's gospel refers to this (and probably Exod. 12:46) with respect to Jesus' death: "For these
things took place that the scripture might be fulfilled, 'Not a bone of him shall be broken'" (19:36, RSV).
But the NRSV will not allow such a prediction about an individual man in Psalm 34, so the prediction is
plural: "He keeps all their bones; not one of them will be broken" (NRSV). The individuality of
the Messianic prediction, so wonderfully fulfilled in Jesus' death, is lost to readers of the NRSV. And
the NCV, NLT, and NIVI all have "their bones" as well, even though the statement is singular ("his bones")
in Hebrew.
Other passages in the NRSV suffer the same fate: John 15:5 becomes, "I am the vine, you are the branches.
Those who abide in me and I in them bear much fruit, because apart from me you can do nothing."
(Jesus no longer says he will abide in an individual believer.) John 14:21 now says, "They who have
my commandments and keep them are those who love me; and those who love me will be loved by
my Father, and I will love them and reveal myself to them." (Jesus no longer specifies that
he will love and reveal himself to an individual person.) The singular pronouns that Jesus frequently used
are all changed to plurals. Many verses that specify a relationship between God and the individual believer
have been obscured or removed from Scripture.
In response to this, someone might object that other verses in the Bible, and even other verses in these
contexts, use plurals to speak to us. I agree that other verses have plurals, but that is not the point:
these verses have singulars, and they should not be changed to plurals in translation.
Another objection might be that Jesus used generic "he" because he mostly spoke to men. Was this the
reason? Certainly not. Many women also followed him (see Luke 8:3, where "many others" is feminine). And
even when talking to an individual woman he used generic "he," telling the woman at the well, "Whoever
drinks the water that I shall give him will never thirst" (John 4:14). Jesus considered the third
person masculine singular pronoun (Greek autos, "he, him") to be inclusive when used in
general sentences like this, even when speaking to one woman alone.
Consider James 5:14-15 in the RSV: "Is any among you sick? Let him call for the elders of the church,
and let them pray over him… and the prayer of faith will save the sick man, and the Lord will raise him up…"
Now there would be no objection to changing "the sick man" to "the sick person" (there is no word specifying
"man" in the Greek text), but the NRSV has gone much further: all the singulars are changed to plurals,
to avoid the forbidden word "him": "Are any among you sick? They should call for the elders of the
church and have them pray over them, anointing them with oil in the name of the Lord. The
prayer of faith will save the sick, and the Lord will raise them up…" The situation that comes to
mind is entirely different; James wrote about a private home with one person sick, but now it looks like
a hospital ward! The meaning has been changed. This is not accurately translating the Bible; it is rewriting
the Bible.
How often are singulars changed to plurals? The words "they, them, their, those" occur 1,732 more times
in the NRSV than in the RSV. In many other places, "he" has been changed to "you" or "we." Why? There have
been no new archaeological discoveries, no changes in our knowledge of Greek and Hebrew, no ancient texts
discovered that make us put plural pronouns instead of singular in these places, or first or second person
in place of third person. The changes have been made because the NRSV translators were required by a
division of the National Council of Churches to remove "masculine oriented language" from the Bible.
This is not a small difference in the meaning of a few verses. This systematic change from singulars
to plurals is a substantial alteration in the flavor and tone of the entire Bible, with a significant
loss in the Bible's emphasis on God relating directly to a specific, individual person.
Most readers of these gender-neutral Bibles will think the plurals were in the original, and they will
interpret and teach these passages accordingly. But these plurals were not what God's Word itself said.
Since "all Scripture is God-breathed" (2 Tim. 3:16), and "every word of God proves true" (Prov. 30:5),
we must conclude that God caused singular pronouns to be used in each of these places for his own purposes,
and, if there is any way to translate them as singulars in legitimate English today, we are not at liberty
to change them to plurals in translation.